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ramblur

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Posted

An annual return (AR01) has landed at CH,giving details of shares issued as at 30/11/14 (so bear in mind these totals will have increased in the meantime).The issued shares are in sterling and other currencies,and include both ordinary and preference shares.The preference shares have no voting rights,but have preference over any dividends available.Both classes of shares have a nominal (par) value of £1,but as you will see,some were issued at a premium.To get to the value of the investment you have to multiply shares issued by issue price.I'll start with the sterling issues:-

Ordinary:- 1@ £28,452,203,  799,664 @£5.32,  11,189,284 @£1 (par)

Preference:- 12,000,000 @£1 (par) 

Total issued:- 23,988,949

Other currencies (all ordinary) :- 1@£5886,983,.26,  1@ £1.853,088.60,  1@ £3,720,060.00, 1@ £6,623,586.82

The currencies aren't given,and I've assumed they've been converted to sterling.

 

Each ordinary share gives entitlement to one vote.

 

Now onto the shareholdings (numbers of shares only given) :-

Ordinary:-   North American Partners LP 11,087,667,  Mel Morris 799,664,  Samuel J Rush 101,622

Preference:- North American Partners LP 9,532,888,  Mel Morris 2,467,112

Total:-23,988,953 (including 4 in other currencies).

For those so inclined,a couple of bits of deduction can throw up more details of holdings.For my part,I'm just content to give a huge thanks to all concerned for their magnificent commitment to our great club.

 

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Posted

I should point out that the deductions I talk of aren't absolutely conclusive,so beware of stating anything as fact,based on such deductions.However,it would look to be naturally correct,based on share issue price and numbers issued.

Posted

Well,I don't know what it is you're having trouble with.Companies have set numbers of shares that are authorised (such numbers may be increased on application),and the shares have a nominal value (in our case £1).The figures I give are issued shares.When a company starts up,you may find that initial shares are issued at this nominal (par) value, but obviously the value of the company may then go up or down in value and any further issues are likely to reflect this (issued at a premium or discount).Sometimes,as in the case of the massive premium on 1 share, it's just done for convenience .

The preference shares give no entitlement to a capital distribution,one of the reasons they continue to issue at par.

Posted

Well,I don't know what it is you're having trouble with.Companies have set numbers of shares that are authorised (such numbers may be increased on application),and the shares have a nominal value (in our case £1).The figures I give are issued shares.When a company starts up,you may find that initial shares are issued at this nominal (par) value, but obviously the value of the company may then go up or down in value and any further issues are likely to reflect this (issued at a premium or discount).Sometimes,as in the case of the massive premium on 1 share, it's just done for convenience .

The preference shares give no entitlement to a capital distribution,one of the reasons they continue to issue at par.

Erm... 

Yes. 

Posted

Well,I don't know what it is you're having trouble with.Companies have set numbers of shares that are authorised (such numbers may be increased on application),and the shares have a nominal value (in our case £1).The figures I give are issued shares.When a company starts up,you may find that initial shares are issued at this nominal (par) value, but obviously the value of the company may then go up or down in value and any further issues are likely to reflect this (issued at a premium or discount).Sometimes,as in the case of the massive premium on 1 share, it's just done for convenience .

The preference shares give no entitlement to a capital distribution,one of the reasons they continue to issue at par.

​You lost me at shares, that time.

It was just a bit of a dry post that smacked of financial jargon that some people might not understand/find particularly stimulating, tis' all.

Posted

In layman's term?

​I really don't know what you expect me to do here -is it that you don't understand what a company's share is? If a company prospers,why would original investors be happy to let newcomers in at the same price they paid,when such newcomers are reducing their percentage holdings,and thus reducing the percentage share of their ultimate payout?

The point about the preference shares is that the holders (according to their holdings) don't get a share of the eventual pie (other than repayment of holdings),and hence the issue price isn't so much of a concern.

As far as the giant premium on the one North American Partners' share goes,you have to realise that the constituent members of this grouping don't have individual shareholdings in Global Derby - their holdings are dictated by their individual holdings in the parent company,and they collectively hold the one ordinary share @ £28,452,203. As I said before,companies have authorised capital levels.Why issue 28,452,203 shares @£1 (thus massively eating into the authorised shares),when issuing just one does the job?

I'm sorry,but if I could explain this better,then I would.

Posted

​I really don't know what you expect me to do here -is it that you don't understand what a company's share is? If a company prospers,why would original investors be happy to let newcomers in at the same price they paid,when such newcomers are reducing their percentage holdings,and thus reducing the percentage share of their ultimate payout?

The point about the preference shares is that the holders (according to their holdings) don't get a share of the eventual pie (other than repayment of holdings),and hence the issue price isn't so much of a concern.

As far as the giant premium on the one North American Partners' share goes,you have to realise that the constituent members of this grouping don't have individual shareholdings in Global Derby - their holdings are dictated by their individual holdings in the parent company,and they collectively hold the one ordinary share @ £28,452,203. As I said before,companies have authorised capital levels.Why issue 28,452,203 shares @£1 (thus massively eating into the authorised shares),when issuing just one does the job?

I'm sorry,but if I could explain this better,then I would.

I understood what you said... After the fourth read.  Just kidding around mate like the others... I hope they got it too ;)

Posted

​You lost me at shares, that time.

It was just a bit of a dry post that smacked of financial jargon that some people might not understand/find particularly stimulating, tis' all.

​Fair enough,but it might be interesting to any that do (at least part) understand it.As I said in my last post,I really can't find a better way of explaining it.

Posted

I understood what you said... After the fourth read.  Just kidding around mate like the others... I hope they got it too ;)

​Can you PM me and explain it to me?:D

Posted

google translate:

some people own some shares.

Posted

google translate:

some people own some shares.

​My translate:

Has RamNut got a brain of his own?

Posted

​My translate:

Has RamNut got a brain of his own?

...and i thought i did quite well.

Posted

Wtf!!!!!

​My sentiments entirely.Why should I spend hours posting for the benefit of others ,when I could spend minutes looking at stuff for my own benefit? I'll restrict my posts to football related matters from hereon- no brainer really-don't know why I never thought of it before.

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